Breaking Down the Acts 28 Wall of Partition
or
A Close Examination of David Tavender’s “The Dividing Line”
On the first page of this booklet, Tavender informs us that “Quotations are from the New International Version unless otherwise stated.” Although there are some good books that use some modern version(s) for their basis, a Bible Believer must in these cases have his BIBLE in hand to see what God really says in contrast to the version. And as any real Bible believer knows, I am not referring to some Greek or Hebrew text when I say BIBLE. When a Bible believer says the word ‘Bible’, he is referring to his authority for all matters of faith and practice, the Holy King James Bible.
On the second page, he gives his beginning text as a basis for this so-called ‘dividing line’ – Acts 28:23 – 29. The reasoning here is that since Paul said (verse 28) “Be it known therefore unto you, that the salvation of God is sent unto the Gentiles, and that they will hear it.”, that Paul is declaring the start of a new system or program ending God’s dealing with ‘the church of God’ which isn’t the body of Christ and beginning God’s dealing with the’ church of the mystery’ which is the body of Christ.
There are a few errors in this interpretation. Remember “that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation” (2 Peter 1:20). We must compare this scripture (Acts 28:23-29) to other scriptures in order to speak in the words which the Holy Ghost’s wisdom teacheth (1 Corinthians 2:13). The first error is that Paul had already turned from the Jews to the Gentiles twice (Acts 13:46; 18:6). Acts 28 isn’t the only dividing line. There are three. Secondly, Paul doesn’t even say in Acts 28:28 that he is turning away from anybody or anything. And if Acts 28 is the start of the body of Christ, why does Paul say “that the salvation of God is sent unto the Gentiles”? Why doesn’t he say that the salvation of God is sent unto the body of Christ or the church of the mystery? Thirdly, it can be easily proved that the church of God in Acts 2 – 28 is the body of Christ. [I’ll get back to this later.]
On his next page, he says that he is seeking to illustrate “the differences in God's dealings with believers before and after the events of Acts 28”. Of course there are differences before and after Acts 28. The whole book of Acts is a transitional period. There are also changes taking place in the gospels during the life of Christ. So, what does that mean? How about illustrating the differences before and after Acts 2? Before and after Acts 8? Acts 10? Acts 15? Acts 19?
In Matthew 19, Jesus gave keeping the commandments as a requirement to have eternal life. In Acts 8, the Ethiopian eunuch was saved by grace through faith only. So, we know that, at least by that time, the ‘program’ (concerning salvation) has changed. This ‘program’ of salvation by grace through faith (the gospel of the grace of God) continues throughout the ‘church age’ until the rapture. The gospel of the grace of God and the church of the one body mystery was made possible “by the cross” (Ephesians 2:16).
‘The dividing line’ is at the cross. And another dividing line is the rapture. These two dividing lines mark changes in the ‘program’ concerning salvation. Acts 28:28 does not mark such a change. To use Acts 28:28 as a dividing line for anything is nonsense.
To divide between Paul’s writings, putting a difference between the writings before Acts 28 and the writings after Acts 28 doesn’t work at all. His writings before match his writings after. Ephesians 2:14 says that Jesus Christ on the cross broke down a wall of partition. These Axe 28ers are rebuilding a wall of partition at Acts 28.
On the fourth page of this booklet, Tavender says, “we need to keep in mind that Israel may be the focus of these, and not necessarily the church of today.”
In fact, the three groups of people that the Bible and God deals with are the Jews, the Gentiles, and the church of God (1 Corinthians 10:32). Again, there are 3 groups of people. Outside of the church of God, anyone who is not a Jew is a Gentile. The church of God is one body with Jews and Gentiles together. Those are the only three groups! The Axe 28ers have invented another group by splitting the one body into two churches.
Page 5: “Here began man's need for regaining a right relationship with God - the underlying theme of Scripture.”
He mistakenly thinks that the theme of the Bible is salvation. The theme of the Bible really is the King and the kingdom.
Page 7: “Israelites continued to be the focus of attention during the period covered by the book of Acts”.
The focus of attention in the book of Acts is the early history and growth of the church.
“Prior to this, if a Gentile wanted to partake of God's blessings, he had to undergo many rituals and actually become an
Israelite (Exodus 12:48; Deuteronomy 16:11-12; 29:10-12; and elsewhere).”
What about Acts 8? In Acts 8:26-38, the Ethiopian eunuch was saved by faith in Jesus. His declaration in Acts 8:37 matches what Peter said to Cornelius in Acts 10:43. Was the Ethiopian not a Gentile?
Page 8: “(Note that the book of Romans was written during the Acts Period and, naturally, reflects the conditions that were in operation at that time in God's plans.)”
There’s that false idea that the time of a writing or revelation is the only factor relevant to when the writing is in effect. The real factor to determine a dividing line is “Where do doctrines match and where do they contradict? It is obvious to anyone who pays attention to what the Bible says that Matthew 19:17 does not match Acts 16:31. And Matthew 24:10-13 does not match 1 Corinthians 15:1-4. It is also obvious after reading Paul’s epistles that the ones written before Acts 28 do match the ones written after Acts 28. Acts 28 is not a dividing line.
“As a result of continuing unbelief, a judgment was delivered by Paul to the leaders of the Jews, representative of Israel's spiritual state (Acts 28:25-28). At this point, at the end of the period covered by the book of Acts, the nation of Israel ceased to be God's chosen people. And that's where the focus of this booklet lies.”
I have already commented on the “judgment delivered by Paul” in Acts 28:28. As Tavender even states himself and gives verses for later in his booklet, this is the 3rd time Paul delivered this judgment. This means that either there are three dividing lines marked by this proclamation or none.
Also, the nation of Israel has never ceased to be God’s chosen people. Israel has been ‘set aside’ by God temporarily. Israel is not currently the focus of God’s attention. But they are still God’s chosen people. They always will be.
Page 11: “It is obvious that God’s purpose for Israel had not been terminated before Acts 28, because, as Paul said in Acts 28:20, "It is because of the hope of Israel that I am bound with this chain."
God’s purpose for Israel has still not been terminated. Even now in the church age, God’s purpose for Israel remains the same and has not been terminated. Again, Israel is not currently the focus of God’s attention. But his purpose for them is the same as it ever was.
“They had not been set aside earlier, at the Cross, as is often claimed and which is clearly incorrect as a reading of Acts shows. It was still Paul's desire that they would repent and thus be blessed with the return of the Messiah (Christ) to become their king in a glorious land. This was the hope of all Jews, and note that this was also their hope some 35 years earlier when two of the disciples were discussing the crucified Lord.”
I also don’t believe that Israel had been set aside at the cross. And I don’t believe that it was at Acts 28. It isn’t absolutely clear from the scriptures when Israel was set aside. I believe it was at Acts 7 when Stephen was stoned. When Jesus Christ ascended into heaven, he “sat on the right hand of God” Mark 16:19. When Stephen was preaching in Acts 7, he saw Jesus standing on the right hand of God” (verses 55-56). He was standing in preparation for flight. He was getting ready to come back. Then Colossians 3:1 says that “Christ sitteth on the right hand of God”. How long Jesus was standing we don’t know. I think he sat down again after Stephen was killed. The Axers think that Jesus stood for 30 years (from Acts 7 to Acts 28). The thing that is certain is that you can’t prove absolutely when Israel was set aside. The fact of the matter is that the time of Israel being set aside is not a dividing line between the ‘kingdom church’ and the body of Christ either. The Axers have the mistaken idea that the body of Christ couldn’t exist until after Israel was set aside. They think that the body of Christ is the result of the postponement of the kingdom. That’s not true. The body of Christ started as a result of the cross. The first people in Christ were the apostles. Peter preached the gospel of the kingdom in Acts 2 & 3 because the kingdom was still being offered to Israel after the commencement of the Body of Christ.
Page 12: “we see that not much had changed since the time of Christ on earth.”
Not much had changed? Yeah? Not much except the most vital change that could take place. As I stated earlier, the conditions or requirements for acquiring eternal life had changed drastically. The change was from a faith and works setup to a faith only setup. This wasn’t before and after Acts 28. It was before and after the ascension of Jesus Christ.
Pages 12-13: “In other words, the messages and conditions at the end of Acts were similar to those much earlier. In the Gospels, the advent of the Messiah to establish His kingdom was what Israel was looking forward to. This hope had not been abandoned or forfeited yet. Thirty or so years after the cross, when the events of Acts 28 took place, Israelites were still looking for the advent of the Messiah to establish His kingdom - and they were right to do so, for the nation of Israel had not yet been set aside by God.”
He says here that “the messages and conditions at the end of Acts were similar to those much earlier.” Only the ones that he wants you to notice are similar. When he says ‘much earlier’, he means “In the Gospels”. The message of Acts 8 is vastly different from the one in Matthew 24. The message of Acts 10 is vastly different from the one in Luke 3:7-14. By noting the similarity of messages in regard to Israel and making that the essential mark for a dividing line, these Axers are ignoring the very thing that is actually essential for marking the start of the church, which is his body.
Then he says this: “Thirty or so years after the cross, when the events of Acts 28 took place, Israelites were still looking for the advent of the Messiah.” Honestly, it doesn’t matter how long the Israelites continued to look for the Messiah. In Numbers 13 and 14, after Israel was set aside from going into the land of Canaan, they still expected that they could go in. If the Israelites were still looking for the Messiah to come in the later part of Acts, that doesn’t prove anything. What if the Israelites were looking for Christ to come now? Does that mean they still have not been set aside today?
Every building block for this wall of partition at Acts 28 is flawed.
Page 13: “This quotation from Isaiah 6:9-10 in the Old Testament forms the central part of God's judgement against Israel.”
Page 14: “This portion from Isaiah 6 appears in the New Testament several times and is a real key to understanding this aspect of the plan of God. Isaiah 6:9-10 is quoted on three different occasions.”
I wouldn’t call 3 several. And if this quote is so significant, why aren’t Matthew 13 and John 12 also ‘dividing lines’? And again, a similarity connecting Acts 28 to Matthew 13 and/or John 12 does not negate the differences between the gospels and the book of Acts. Besides that, the quote from Isaiah 6:9-10 in Acts 28:26-27 is still true of Israel today. I can preach that to lost people, to Christians, and also to Israel and make application to all three groups (1 Corinthians 10:32) today.
This portion from Isaiah 6 quoted in the New Testament and in Acts 28 is a key to nothing. I hope Tavender isn’t going to try to tell us that those verses don’t describe Israel today.
Page 15: Why doesn’t Tavender use Matthew 13 and John 12 also as dividing lines? Why don’t we claim that Israel was set aside in the gospels because of these passages? It makes just as much sense as what the Axers are claiming. And as I have already said, if Israel wasn’t set aside until Acts 28, that wouldn’t have any effect on the fact that the church which is his body started at the ascension of Christ (Ephesians 1:20).
Page 16: “A question is often raised with this verse. If, at Acts 28, God set Israel aside, how can it be that His salvation "has been sent" (past tense) already to the Gentiles. We will see that this statement is entirely consistent with earlier portions of Acts.
In each city that Paul visited in his travels, he would visit the Jews first. But, as his message was often given a hostile reception by the Jews, he would then go to the Gentiles of that city and speak to them.
In Antioch:
"... [the Jews] talked abusively against what Paul was saying. Then Paul and Barnabas answered them boldly: ‘We had to speak the word of God to you (Jews) first. Since you reject it ... we now turn to the Gentiles.’" (Acts 13:45,46)
In Corinth:
"But when the Jews ... became abusive, he shook out his clothes in protest and said to them ... ‘From now on I will go to the Gentiles.’" (Acts 18:6)
As we can see, Paul spoke, and was rejected by the Jews. He then made a point of saying that his words would not be wasted on the Jews of that place, and that the Gentiles will be offered the message. The same thing happened in Acts 28:28.”
This is where Tavender states that Paul had already turned to the Gentiles twice. And I said before there are either three dividing lines or none.
Page 17: “In an attempt to provoke the Jews into repentance and belief, from Acts 10 onwards Gentiles as well as Jews began to be accepted by God.”
“Gentiles as well as Jews began to be accepted by God” because they believed on the name of Jesus Christ and trusted him by faith to get eternal life and they were “accepted in the beloved” (Ephesians 1:6) and reconciled with the Jews unto God in one body by the cross (Ephesians 2:16).
Page 19: “It is natural, then, that the writings before Acts 28 should reflect the fact that Israel was still the chosen nation. Conversely, the writings after Acts 28 should reflect that Israel was no longer the chosen nation, and this is exactly what we find.”
Israel is still the chosen nation now as I have said before. I have to keep repeating myself. At the end of this critique, I will give a comparison of Paul’s writings.
“The letters written after the end of the Acts period speak of a new revelation in God's plan for mankind which only came to light after the rejection of the Israelite nation:”
The new revelation that Tavender is talking about is the revelation of the mystery. He next quotes Ephesians 3:3-6 to point this out. What he fails to show you is that Paul had already mentioned this “revelation of the mystery” in 60 AD when he wrote Romans a few years before Acts 28.
“Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began, But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith:” Romans 16:25-26
Page 21: “We tend to think of a mystery as being, well, mysterious I suppose! But that is not what the Greek word means here. It really means “secret”. Look at the verses above again, and substitute "secret" where you see the word "mystery"- it will make much more sense.”
It is quite unnecessary to try to correct the Bible with the Greek word. The word ‘mystery’ is much better than the word ‘secret’.
On page 23, Tavender begins his “Comparisons Before and After Acts 28”. Under his first example, he says, “Before Acts 28 The mystery (or secret) of Ephesians was not yet revealed.”
This is not true as I have shown just earlier from Romans 16:25-26.
“Before Acts 28
The term "body" was simply an illustration of the groups of Christians within each locality.”
To make this statement, Tavender had to ignore 1 Corinthians 12:13. “For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.” This verse is not about “groups of Christians within each locality.” Each group is a local body. This verse says “one body”. They were not baptized into a local body by the “one Spirit”. We are all baptized into the body of Christ by the Holy Spirit.
“For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ. There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.” Galatians 3:27-28
Tavender is trying to tell us that in the “groups of Christians within each locality” there is “neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female”?
As my father used to say, “I may have fallen off of a watermelon truck but it wasn’t yesterday”.
The two examples he gives on page 24 need no comment here. I have commented already on the hope of Israel. Both of these examples mean nothing in regard to any dividing line.
Page 25: (Before Acts 28) “The Jewish believers rightly continued in following the Law of Moses, whereas the Gentiles had to observe just four rules (Acts 15:19-20).”
Acts 15:11 proves this statement of Tavender’s to be false. “But we believe that through the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ we shall be saved, even as they.” This verse shows that both groups were saved the same way all the way back in Acts 15. Being saved “through grace”, the Jewish believers no longer continued in following the law of Moses. Where is Tavender’s example in Acts where the Jewish believers followed the law of Moses?
Page 26: (Before Acts 28) “The hope of believers was linked with ages "since (or from) the foundation of the world" (Matthew 25:34 KJV).”
This is a rather senseless comparison to make. Notice that not only is this before Acts 28; but it is also before Acts 2. Ha Ha.
(Before Acts 28) “God's administration was not one of pure grace.”
Acts 15:11 proves this statement of Tavender’s to be false. “But we believe that through the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ we shall be saved, even as they.” This verse shows that both groups were saved the same way – through grace – before Acts 28.
Page 27:
His example of the difference in Paul’s preaching that before Acts 28, men opposed the preaching and Acts 28:31 says that Paul preached “no man forbidding him” is really ridiculous. The two situations are entirely different. In Acts 13, 17, and 21, Paul was going out to a large group of people mostly of who had not heard his message before and did not receive it. In Acts 28:30-31, no man forbade Paul’s preaching because they “came in unto him” (verse 30). Here Paul preached to people who wanted to hear him.
“During Acts the Lord's coming was to be "soon". We do not find phrases such as "the Kingdom of heaven is near" after Acts 28.” You also do not find phrases like "the Kingdom of heaven is near" in the book of Acts at all. Acts 3 does not say that the Lord’s coming was to be soon. And if it did, that would line up with the postponement of the kingdom taking place in Acts7. And as I already stated, the postponement of the kingdom and the setting aside of Israel took place after the commencement of the Body of Christ. Hebrews 10:37 and James 5:8 both could be applied to before Acts 7 and/or the time of Jacob’s trouble which is still yet in the future. Revelation 22 doesn’t help Tavender’s position either. In the Revelation, John has been taken up to heaven (Revelation 4:1-2) and shown things that will happen in the future. Where John is in time “in the spirit” in Revelation 22 is in the future when Jesus will come quickly.
To make a division between Corinthians and Timothy on the basis of Paul’s advising some widows to marry and some not to marry is really stretching it. The contexts and subject matter of these two passages (1 Corinthians 7 and 1 Timothy 5) are not the same. If you give consideration to the contexts and subject matter, you can easily see why the advice is different or seems to be different.
Page 28:
Tavender claims that after Acts 28 observance of the Lord’s Supper is not necessary. For reference on the Lord’s Supper, he gives you 1 Corinthians 11:20-21 and 34. He wants you to skip verse 26. In verse 26 Paul’s tells you how long to continue observing this ordinance. “For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come.” Do you see that? “Ye do shew the Lord's death till he come.” We are to continue observing the Lord’s Supper until he comes. We are not to stop observing it after Acts 28.
At this point, I must observe that David Tavender is a very poor Bible student and teacher. We should continue to observe that.
“Before Acts 28 Water baptism was an essential requirement along with faith for salvation for a Jew (Mark 16:16; Acts 2:38).”
Water baptism was not a requirement for salvation in Acts 2:38. Peter said “be baptized for the remission of sins”. Their sins were remitted when they repented not when they were baptized. He first said “Repent”. Then he said, “be baptized” because their sins were remitted if they repented.
Besides this, in Acts 8, the Ethiopian eunuch was baptized after he believed. He was saved by believing before he was baptized. That’s why Phillip confirmed his faith before baptizing him. Compare Acts 8:37 to Romans 10:9-10. There is no water baptism required in Romans 10.
In Acts 10:44-48, Peter commanded them to be baptized after they had received the Holy Ghost. They didn’t receive the Holy Ghost and then get baptized to be saved. They were saved when they received the Holy Ghost. Then they were baptized.
Paul and Silas, in Acts 16:31 did not give water baptism as a requirement for salvation. They were baptized after they were saved by believing on the Lord Jesus Christ.
If Tavender was to insist that water baptism was required in Acts 2:38 because he thinks that “the remission of sins” was after the baptism, then he would be putting the ‘dividing line’ at Acts 7. He (and you) can’t get around the fact of salvation by faith only without water baptism in Acts 8, 10, and 16. He was just hoping that nobody would point that out to you.
The “one baptism” of Ephesians 4:5 is referring to the one baptism that saves. The whole context there (verses 1-7) is a spiritual context. So in a spiritual context, Paul says “there is one baptism”. That does not make void our practice of water baptism after a person is saved.
Pages 28-29:
Miracles, Signs, and Healings do begin to fade after Israel has been set aside and eventually by the end of Acts, the signs are altogether gone. This is another very weak argument; that before the end of Acts, Paul still had the sign gifts. There is no reason to think that the miracles and signs could not have continued after the postponement of the kingdom, the setting aside of Israel, and the commencement of the body of Christ.
Page 29: Before Acts 28 “In his messages, Paul only declared that which was also covered by the writings of Moses and the prophets in some way.”
Absolute Nonsense! There is plenty of material in Thessalonians, Galatians, Corinthians, and Romans that is not covered by the writings of Moses and the prophets.
His remaining examples of comparison of before and after Acts 28 are meaningless.
The Church Which Is His Body
“And [God] hath put all things under his feet, and gave him to be the head over all things to the church, Which is his body, the fulness of him that filleth all in all.” Ephesians 1:22-23
This is the “one body” brought about “by the cross” (Ephesians 2:16). After the ascension of Jesus Christ into heaven (Acts 1:9-11), on the day of Pentecost (Acts 2:1), the twelve apostles received the Holy Ghost, were quickened and raised up by the Holy Spirit (Ephesians 2:1-6), and baptized by the Holy Spirit into the body of Christ (1 Corinthians 12:13; Galatians 3:27-28; Romans 7:4; 1 Corinthians 10:16; 1 Corinthians 12:27-28; Ephesians 4:12).
Now, the references in this statement are one example of how the writings of Paul before Acts 28 match the writings of Paul after Acts 28. In fact, saying that Romans, Corinthians, and Galatians apply before Acts 28 and still deny that the body of Christ existed before Acts 28 is a contradiction that can not be ignored!
Ephesians 2:16 says that Jews and Gentiles were both reconciled “unto God in one body by the cross” and Ephesians 1:20 says that this reconciliation in Christ happened when Christ sat at the right hand of God. (Be sure to read all of Ephesians 1:17-23; “the church, which is his body”.)
“For as the body is one, and hath many members, and all the members of that one body, being many, are one body: so also is Christ. For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.” 1 Corinthians 12:12-13
“For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ. There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.” Galatians 3:27-28
This is the body of Christ written about in books before Acts 28.
“Wherefore, my brethren, ye also are become dead to the law by the body of Christ; that ye should be married to another, even to him who is raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit unto God.” Romans 7:4
“Now ye are the body of Christ, and members in particular. And God hath set some in the church, first apostles, secondarily prophets, thirdly teachers, after that miracles, then gifts of healings, helps, governments, diversities of tongues.” 1 Corinthians 12:27-28
Paul said to the Corinthians, “ye are the body of Christ” and then says, “God hath set some in the church”. Paul is talking about “the church, which is his body” (Ephesians 1:22-23).
In Acts 9:5, Jesus told Paul, “I am Jesus whom thou persecutest”. Paul said that he was “persecuting the church” (Philippians 3:6). Paul was persecuting “the church, which is his body” (Ephesians 1:22-23). The body of Christ was in existence even before Paul was saved (30 years before Acts 28).
“Praising God, and having favour with all the people. And the Lord added to the church daily such as should be saved.” Acts 2:47
“And believers were the more added to the Lord, multitudes both of men and women.)” Acts 5:14
Comparing Acts 2:47 to 5:14 shows that “the church” in Acts 2 is defined as “the Lord” in Acts 5. “Believers were the more added to the Lord” – “the church, which is his body” in Acts 2 and Acts 5.
“And the word of God increased; and the number of the disciples multiplied” (Acts 6:7). That word of God there is a reference to the Lord (Revelation 19:13). The Lord – the body of Christ – increased as the number of the disciples multiplied.
“For he was a good man, and full of the Holy Ghost and of faith: and much people was added unto the Lord.” Acts 11:24
“But the word of God grew and multiplied.” Acts 12:24
“As they ministered to the Lord, and fasted, the Holy Ghost said, Separate me Barnabas and Saul for the work whereunto I have called them.” Acts 13:2
“And when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad, and glorified the word of the Lord: and as many as were ordained to eternal life believed.” Acts 13:48
“So mightily grew the word of God and prevailed.” Acts 19:20
“Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood.” Acts 20:28
These nine verses throughout the book of Acts shows that the “church, which is his body” (Ephesians 1:22-23) was existing, was active, and was increasing from Acts 2 onward.
For further information on the body of Christ, I refer you to my audio “Answering HyperDispensationalism”. This audio is available. I also refer you to my study on the spiritual birth: http://www.ourchurch.com/view/?pageID=155775.
Thursday, May 21, 2009
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About Me
- Gary N Alford
- Fort Wayne, Indiana, United States
- I was "born of the flesh" on November 24, 1960 and I was "born of the Spirit" (John 3:5-6) in May, 1981. "Except a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God." (John 3:3) I am a 55 year old student and teacher of the word of God, the Holy Bible. I am a student of the English Language and its history including Anglo-Saxon and Middle English. I am also currently studying American History. I am an avid reader with a personal library of around 2000 volumes. I am a literary critic including Biblical works and Biblical doctrine. I am a master of Biblical studies, having read completely through the King James Bible approximately 30 times, and studied the Bible for most of 27 years. I have written and personally published and printed (by Word of Truth Publications) about 20 Biblical tracts. I continue my studies for continued personal growth and for preparation for further publication of new materials. [And the things that thou hast heard of me among many witnesses, the same commit thou to faithful men, who shall be able to teach others also. 2 Timothy 2:2 ]


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